A prepositional phrase is made up of a preposition and a noun phrase. We use prepositional phrases for many purposes, for example:

- as adverbials of time and place:

We will be back in a few days.
They drove to Glasgow

.- as a postmodifier in a noun phrase:

Helen is the girl in the red dress
We’ve got a new television with a thirty one inch screen.

- to show who did something:

The lion was killed by the hunter
I saw a wonderful painting by Van Gogh

- with double object verbs like give and get:

We gave five pounds to the woman on the corner.
They got a drink for me.

- after certain verbs, nouns and adjectives:

The book belongs to me.
I had an argument with my brother.
I feel sorry for you.



Hello Naghma

In standard British English, 'price of' and 'price for' are both correct, but are used in different situations. In this case, the second sentence is correct, but the first is not.

'price of' is probably more common. When we use this phrase, we are speaking about how much money we have to pay to get something -- for example, 'The price of this car is £6,000.'

We use 'price for' not to talk about a numerical price, but rather what is exchanged to get something. For example, 'After a lot of haggling, we agreed on a price for the car'. We also often say 'for the price', for example, 'Don't miss today's special offer -- get two doughnuts for the price of one!'

I hope that clears it up for you.

All the best


The LearnEnglish Team

When we write about ranges we use both 'from' and 'to'. And sometimes 'to' only.
They used to pay him twenty to thirty dollars.
They used to pay him from twenty to thirty dollars.
How do we decide when to use both 'from' and 'to' and when to use only 'to'?

Hi naghmairam,

There is no difference in meaning. In informal conversation the 'from' can be omitted without changing the meaning of the sentence.



The LearnEnglish Team

It is advantageous for me to go there.
It is advantageous to me.
It is advantageous for me.
My grammar checking tool is showing that "to" can't be used in place of "for" in the first sentence; However, it has no problem with the third sentence. Would somebody explain the logic behind this?

Hi sam61,

I think both for and to are possible in the first sentence. For is more common, I would say, but both are correct.

Like online translators, grammar checking tools can be helpful but are quite blunt instruments and will often offer questionable advice.



The LearnEnglish Team

Hi dear Teachers,
which sentence is correct?

1. I go to school with my father.

2. I go to school by my father.

I would really appreciate if you could explain when "with" and " by" are used, or mention a site to find out about it.

Best of All

Hello Mohsen.k77

1 is correct, assuming that you mean you accompany your father, or that he accompanies ('goes with') you.

I'm afraid that I can't explain all the different ways different prepositions are used , as there are so many! I would suggest looking them up in the Cambridge Dictionary or doing an internet search for them. In talking about movement, 'by' usually indicates that you either pass a place (I went by the police station) or your mode of transport (I went by bus).

All the best


The LearnEnglish Team

thanks dear kirk,
but if I mean my father drives me to my school,still the first example(with my father) is correct? what about the following case:

#I am taken(driven) to school by my father.

Best Wishes

Hi again Mohsen

If your father drives you to school and you consider it important that he drives you, then it would be better to say 'My father drives me to school'. You could say 'I am taken (or 'driven') to school by my father' and that would be grammatically correct, but in most circumstances the version in the active voice (the first one) would be better.

All the best


The LearnEnglish Team

thanks dear Kirk for your patience to answer my question.