We use the perfective will have when we are looking back from a point in time when something will have happened.

By the end of the decade scientists will have discovered a cure for influenza.
I will phone at six o’clock. He will have got home by then.

or looking "back" from the present:

Look at the time. The match will have started.
It’s half past five. Dad will have finished work.

We use would have as the past tense form of will have:

I phoned at six o’clock. I knew he would have got home by then.
It was half past five. Dad would have finished work.

We use would have in past conditionals to talk about something that did not happen:

If it had been a little warmer we would have gone for a swim.
He would have been very angry if he had seen you.



Thanks for your help!
I have a question though. In this sentence, I want to say that the movement ALMOST lost its nonviolent quality. (It did not lost it because King persuaded the people)
Does your sentence express this?
Thanks again!

Hello esztii.b,

Yes, the sentences tells us that the movement started to lose that quality but King intervened to stop it before it was too late.

Best wishes,



The LearnEnglish Team

Hello Sir,

1. Are "She will has eaten some cookies." and "She will has a new car." not correct?
2. the passive form of present future continuous is "will be being eaten" or "will being eaten"?
3. What is the obvious difference between will and shall?
4. the passive form of "Students shall hand in a lot of shool project next week." is

"A lot of school project shall be handed in by student next week."


"A lot of school project should be hand in by student next week."?

thank in advance
best regards


Hello Isnaini,

I'm afraid we can't give such long answers in the comments sections. Though we're happy to help where we can, it's not possible for us to give lessons to users!


We form perfect modal verbs with 'have', not 'has', so 'will have' is the correct form.


Passive forms need the verb 'to be', so 'will be being' is the correct form.


'Shall' is rare in modern English and is generally used only in formal requests and offers, or in formal instructions. There is no reason to change 'shall' to 'should' in passive forms.


Best wishes,


The LearnEnglish Team

dear sir,

is 'it should have reached by now' correct english ?
OR 'it should have been reached by now' correct ?

Hello bunts,

Both of these are correct. The first is active voice and the second is passive voice. Which is correct depends on the context.


Best wishes,


The LearnEnglish Team

It was posted last Thursday so i thought it should have been/it should have reached by now.

Sir,which is correct sentence as per the voice ?

Hello again bunts,

If this sentence is about a letter or package, then the active form is the correct form here: 'It was posted last Thursday, so it should have arrived by now'. Note I changed the word 'reach' to 'arrive'; 'reach' is transitive in this sense, so 'arrive' works better if you don't indicate the object. See the dictionary for examples of 'reach'.

All the best,
The LearnEnglish Team

Thanks sir !

you mentioned about active voice being appropriate in case of letter or package here;are there exceptions to use passive voices ?

Hello bunts,

This example is not an exception. It is rather due to the meaning of the verb. Both 'reach' and 'arrive' are things that the parcel does - they are not things that someone does to the parcel. If you use a verb like 'deliver' then a passive form would be appropriate: '...it should have been delivered by now'.


Best wishes,


The LearnEnglish Team