Why do we use adverbials?

We use adverbs to give more information about the verb.

We use adverbials of manner to say how something happens or how something is done:

The children were playing happily.
He was driving as fast as possible.

We use adverbials of place to say where something happens:

I saw him there.
We met in London.

We use adverbials of time to say when or how often something happens:

They start work at six thirty.
They usually go to work by bus.

We use adverbials of probability to show how certain we are about something.

  • Perhaps the weather will be fine.
  • He is certainly coming to the party.

 

Try these tasks to practice your use of adverbials.

Task 1

Exercise

Task 2

Exercise

Task 3

Exercise

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Comments

Hello Owais,

'modify' in this context just means that it tells us more about the verb, adjective or adverb (adverbs can also modify other adverbs). For example, I can say 'I am sick'. If I modify the adjective 'sick' with the adverb 'very', it gives more details about 'sick'.

All the best,
Kirk
The LearnEnglish Team

Thank you
I will elaborate it sir
If we take the sentence in isolation
Okay leave that , in context if I go to a marriage hall to meet the people and when I reach there I find the hall empty , then I text my friend that they are gone ( means the people are gone)
Is it correct because we don't use are with past participle form of verb
My guardian told me that you should better write they have gone?
What do you say sir
I mean why this is wrong or why correct?

Hello Owais,

Thanks for explaining the context. You could say 'They are gone' or 'They have gone' in this case. 'have gone' is a present perfect verb and would mean that they left a short time ago.

'are gone' is what most people would say, and although it looks like the present perfect, it is not – it is the verb 'be' in the present simple tense with the past participle 'gone', which in this case acts as an adjective.

I would recommend saying and writing 'They are gone'.

All the best,
Kirk
The LearnEnglish Team

Aa everyone ...
Sir I have a simple question
Please help me in making my concept clear
We say
"They are gone"
Is this sentence correct ?
If yes please explain and if wrong then please make it correct with giving clear cut rules
Thank you

Hello Owais,

'They are gone' is grammatically correct, but whether it is not correct in a situation depends on the situation.

We're happy to help with your questions if they are related to the topic on one of our pages. Please make them as specific as possible, with as much explanation of what you understand and don't understand and how you see the issue you're asking about. We can help you much better this way!

All the best,
Kirk
The LearnEnglish Team

Hello,
Is the following sentence correct?
'Explain in detail so that the students can understand.'

I am not sure what tense to use after 'so that'. Please advise.
Thanks

Hello naghmairam,

That sentence is fine. There is no rule about the tense that can be used here, other than normal rules of logic. As 'explain' refers to an action in the present or future you could not use a past form, but if we change 'explain' to 'explained' then a past form would be fine. It is just a question of logic: the result must be later in time than the cause.

 

Best wishes,

Peter

The LearnEnglish Team

Hello there,
Would you clarify me please if there is any grammatical mistake regarging the word order (the place of the adverb 'continuously') in the sentences below:
1) We have continuously been improving our skills ...
2) We have been continuously improving our skills ...
If both variants are possible, please kindly explain me the difference in their meaning.
Thank you and regards,

Hello Khatetsky,

Both sentences are correct and mean the same thing. Sometimes, moving an adverb from one position to another will change the meaning slightly, but in this case I can't think of any obvious change.

All the best,
Kirk
The LearnEnglish Team

Hello, Kirk,
Thank you again for your previous reply.
Anyway, I have got to admit that there is a very hot dispute :) here in our office between some of colleagues of mine further to the matter regarding the proper exact position of an adverb if we have two auxiliary verbs like we have that in Perfect Continious sentences...
I wonder whether there is any firm Grammar rule in English that the adverb should be placed right between the first (e.g.'have';) and the second (e.g.'been') auxiliary verbs (when we speak or write formal language)?
Could you clarify the matter, please? :)

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