Perfect aspect

Level: intermediate

We use perfect aspect to look back from a specific time and talk about things up to that time or about things that are important at that time.

We use the present perfect to look back from the present:

I have always enjoyed working in Italy. [and I still do]
She has left home, so she cannot answer the phone.

We use the past perfect to look back from a time in the past:

It was 2006. I had enjoyed working in Italy for the past five years.
She had left home, so she could not answer the phone.

We use will with the perfect to look back from a time in the future:

By next year I will have worked in Italy for 15 years.
She will have left home by 8.30, so she will not be able to answer the phone.

Present perfect

We use the present perfect:

  • for something that started in the past and continues in the present:

They've been married for nearly 50 years.
She has lived in Liverpool all her life.

  • when we are talking about our experience up to the present:

I've seen that film before.
I've played the guitar ever since I was a teenager.
He has written three books and he is working on another one.

  • for something that happened in the past but is important in the present:

I can't get in the house. I've lost my keys.
Teresa isn't at home. I think she has gone shopping.

We normally use the present perfect continuous to emphasise that something is still continuing in the present:

It's been raining for hours.
I'm tired out. I've been working all day.

Past perfect

We use the past perfect:

  • for something that started in the past and continued up to a later time in the past:

When George died, he and Anne had been married for nearly 50 years.
She didn't want to move. She had lived in Liverpool all her life.

  • when we are reporting our experience up to a point in the past:

My eighteenth birthday was the worst day I had ever had.
I was pleased to meet George. I hadn't met him before, even though I had met his wife several times.

  • for something that happened in the past and is important at a later time in the past:

I couldn't get into the house. I had lost my keys.
Teresa wasn't at home. She had gone shopping.

We use the past perfect continuous to show that something started in the past and continued up to a time in the past or was important at that time in the past:

Everything was wet. It had been raining for hours.
He was a wonderful guitarist. He had been playing ever since he was a teenager.

Modals with the perfect

We use will with the perfect to show that something will be complete at or before some time in the future:

In a few years they will have discovered a cure for the common cold.
I can come out tonight. I'll have finished my homework by then.

We use would with the perfect to refer to something that did not happen in the past:

If you had asked me, I would have helped you.
I would have helped you, but you didn't ask me.
You didn't ask me or I would have helped you.

We use other modals with the perfect when we are looking back from a point in time. The point of time may be in the future:

We'll meet again next week. We might have finished the work by then.
I will phone at six o'clock. He should have got home by then.

or the present:

It's getting late. They should have arrived by now.
He's still not here. He must have missed his train.

or the past:

I wasn't feeling well. I must have eaten something bad.
I checked my mobile phone. She could have left a message.

Perfect aspect 1

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Perfect aspect 2

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Perfect aspect 3

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Average
Average: 4.2 (20 votes)

Submitted by howtosay_ on Wed, 27/09/2023 - 03:02

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Hello, dear teachers and team!

Could you please help me with the following:

"It was 2006. I had enjoyed working in Italy for the past five years."

As far as I understand, it is not clear from this sentence whether he enjoyed working in Italy in 2006 or not. So, first he had enjoyed working in Italy. Then 2006 came. This sentence shows the past before 2006. So, he might have or might have not still enjoyed working there in 2006.

Could you please tell me if it is correct?

Many many thanks for your precious work and immense help and I'm grateful for the answer to this post beforehand!!!

Hello howtosay_,

I agree that it's not completely clear, however with no other context I would probably assume that he also enjoyed working there in 2006. Actually, if that is the intended meaning, then I'd recommend using a present perfect continuous form to show this: 'It was 2006. I'd been enjoying working ...'

Another wrinkle is the phrase 'for the past five years'. This usually includes the present moment at the time of speaking. If you want to separate the past from the present more clearly, I'd recommend using something like 'for the previous five years'.

But even saying 'I had enjoyed working in Italy for the previous five years' doesn't unambiguously show some kind of change. You'd need to use another phrase or words to do that, e.g. 'It was 2006. I'd enjoyed working in Italy until then, but when X happened in January, my feelings changed ...'

All the best,
Kirk
LearnEnglish team

Submitted by jitu_jaga on Fri, 14/07/2023 - 07:30

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Hello Teachers,
I don't understand the difference in meaning of these two sentences?
Max is disappeared.
Max has disappeared.
Could you explain it clearly?

Hi jitu_jaga,

Sure, I'll try to help! "Disappear" can be used intransitively or transitively.

The most common usage is intransitive (i.e., it does not take an object). It means to vanish, or to no longer be visible. This is the usage in Max has disappeared.

The transitive usage is less common. As a transitive verb, it takes an object, e.g. The magician disappeared the rabbit. If the object is a person, it strongly implies a criminal act such as murder or kidnapping for the purpose of silencing that person. As a transitive verb, it can be made passive, which is the structure of Max is disappeared.

I hope that helps.

Jonathan

LearnEnglish team

Submitted by ZIA KATARINA on Wed, 10/05/2023 - 07:11

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Hello! I am so confused about using "has/have/had been" + verb with -ed like for example, "had been destroyed" and "has been involved." Supposedly, it should be "had been" + verb-ing, right? .and also what I know is that there should be no "been" in present perfect or past perfect. "Been" is for perfect progressive forms only, isn't it? I would like to know the rule about when I should use the "verb -ed" with "has/have/had been" and when it is not.
Examples are here which I am so confused about:
1. They have been married for nearly 50 years.
2. When police arrived at the scene, the evidence had been destroyed.
3. Clarence called me and told me that Rina had been involved in a hit-and-run in Oklahoma City.

Hoping for your response. Thanks so much!

Hello ZIA KATARINA,

'Been' is used in several forms. As you say, it is used to make perfect progressive forms with the -ing form: I've been working all day.

However, 'been' can also be used in other forms:

> present perfect of 'be': I was married (past simple) - I have been married for thirty years [present perfect]. In these examples, 'married' is an adjective; you could use other adjectives instead such as 'happy', 'satisfied', 'depressed' ,'involved' etc.

> perfect passive forms with the third form of the verb: the evidence was destroyed (by the criminals) [past simple passive] - the evidence had been destroyed (by...) [past perfect passive]

 

I hope that helps to clarify it for you.

 

Peter

The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by shazdks on Sat, 03/12/2022 - 08:05

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hi sir,, may i use this as my resource for my english grammar presentation ? thank you in advance !

Hello shazdks,

As long as you acknowledge the parts that you took from this page, yes, you can use the explanation to help make your presentation.

All the best,
Kirk
The LearnEnglish Team

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Submitted by magdy on Mon, 28/11/2022 - 07:00

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the last time he played football was ( since\ when ) we were in Aswan.
is it when or since

Hello magdy,

'since' speaks about a time period beginning in the past until the present. 'when' is much more general but talks about time.

In this case, it doesn't make sense to use 'since' because the time period mentioned -- the time we were in Aswan -- is only in the past.

So 'when' is the correct word here.

All the best,
Kirk
The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by g-ssan on Tue, 20/09/2022 - 21:13

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Hello sir , can you explain to me if we replace perfect aspect with simple aspect did they still same sentence ?
for example :I have always enjoyed working in Italy
I always enjoy working in Italy .
I `ve seen that film before .
I saw that film before.
I need to know what’s the main difference between both of them and how we recognise them perfectly.

Hello g-ssan,

These sentences don't mean exactly the same thing.

For example, 'I have always enjoyed working in Italy' refers to past situations as well as the present. 'I always enjoy working in Italy' refers to the present; it's true that the word 'always' also suggests the speaker has past experience, but it also refers to the future, so it's not exactly the same as 'I have always enjoyed'.

If you have a look at the other pages in this section, particularly under Present tense and Past tense, you can find explanations of the different meanings these forms have.

All the best,
Kirk
The LearnEnglish Team

 

Submitted by Faiaz on Thu, 21/04/2022 - 06:44

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Hey could you help me with these two sentences?are they mean the same ?
I had gone there the previous day
I had been there the previous day

Hello Faiaz,

Both 'been' and 'gone' are past participles of 'go', but there is a difference in meaning:

  • She's been to the shop. [She went; now she's back]
  • She's gone to the shop. [She went; she hasn't returned]

Your example uses the past perfect form but this does not change the difference in meaning other than 'now' being 'then' - i.e. a time before another time in the past. To understand precisely the time reference we would need to know the context in which the sentences were used.

 

Peter

The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by MPhayTp on Mon, 02/08/2021 - 02:15

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1) They have kept telling me that I am a fool. Is this the same meaing with " They have been telling me that I am a fool." If not, why?

Hi DaniWeebKage,

The meanings are similar. Both sentences emphasise that this action ('telling me that I am a fool') has been going on or continuing for some time, but the first version uses vocabulary (i.e., the meaning of kept) to show this meaning. The second version uses grammar (i.e. the use of the present perfect continuous) to show this meaning.

I hope that helps!

Jonathan

The LearnEnglish Team

This is interesting topic to discuss. Can you tell me more about the frist version? Where can I look at this usage?

Dear team hello,
Humans (may have played) a significant part in the sudden disappearance of rainforests from Central Africa three thousand years ago, when they started clearing them for opening open lands for agriculture.
Can I use (have played) instead of (may have played) if not why?
Thank you

Hello Hosseinpour,

The sentence refers to finished past time (...years ago) and so the present perfect is not possible.

Perfect modals, unlike present perfect verb forms, can be used with a finished past time reference:
"She may have been there yesterday."
"She was there yesterday." [not *has been*]

Peter
The LearnEnglish Team

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Submitted by Ahmed Imam on Wed, 07/07/2021 - 15:45

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Hello. Could we use "before + perfect tenses"? For example, are the following sentences correct? Why? 1- Before he has arrived, we will leave. 2- Before he had arrived, we left. 3- Before she has cooked, we will arrive home. 4- Before she has got married, she will be 25. Thank you.

Hi Ahmed Imam,

Yes! All these sentences are correct. We can use present perfect or past perfect with before to show an action that is/was not done or not completed at the time a second action happened.

Jonathan

The LearnEnglish Team

Hello Jonathan. So what is the difference in meaning between the two sentences in each pair of the following sentences? 1a- Before he has arrived, we will leave. 1b- Before he arrives, we will leave. 2a- Before he had arrived, we left. 2b- Before he arrived, we left. 3a- Before she has cooked, we will arrive home. 3b- Before she cooks, we will arrive home. Thank you so much.

Hi Ahmed Imam,

The a and b versions basically mean the same thing, but the a versions mean more emphatically that the second mentioned action happens before the first mentioned action is completed (not just before it happens). The b versions just mean that the second mentioned action happens before the first mentioned one happens, without any special focus on it being completed or not. 

This difference might be particularly relevant when talking about actions that take some time to complete, e.g. cooking in example 3a/3b. But in many other situations, either version would work.

Jonathan

The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by melvinthio on Tue, 22/06/2021 - 16:38

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Hi Jonathan, I just want to confirm whether you have received my queries about the usage of "ever" that I posted on this page in the course of last week because my queries have been missing on this page for a few days and I have not received your answer yet. If you haven't already read my questions, I'll post them again here. I look forward to your reply.

Submitted by alaa.saood on Tue, 25/05/2021 - 08:59

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hello. I was furious when my new computer stopped working. I'd had it for just two weeks! answer: experience up to the present?? Just as they left the railway station, they realised that they'd got on the wrong train. answer: something that happened in the past but is important in the present?? (past perfect)
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Submitted by Kirk Moore on Wed, 26/05/2021 - 06:56

In reply to by alaa.saood

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Hello alaa.saood,

The first sentence talks about something that started in the past (I got the computer) and continued up to a later time in the past (the computer stopped working). The past perfect form in the second sentence refers to something that happened in the past (getting on the wrong train) and is important at a later time in the past (when they were stuck on the wrong train as it left the station).

All the best,

Kirk

The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by Nevı on Sun, 04/04/2021 - 12:41

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Hi great British Council team, I want to ask something because I am very confused. While I was reading English book, I saw this sentence. " I stopped smoking" -Smoking in the sentence is a noun which means in Longman dictionary 'the activity of breathing in tobacco smoke from a cigarette, pipe etc.'? -Or it is a gerund form of the verb 'smoke'? (stop doing something) I am usually confused when I saw the word with '-ing' after a verb. Is it a gerund form of the verb, which is about a pattern, or the noun that ends with -ing. Best wishes. I don't know how I can thank you for your helps.

Hello Nevı,

A gerund is the name we give to a word that is formed from a verb but which functions as a noun. In this case, 'smoking' is a gerund, in other words the noun object of the verb 'stopped'.

Happy to help!

All the best,

Kirk

The LearnEnglish Team

Yes teacher smoking is a gerund (verb;smoke +ing) , but what about the word 'smoking' in the link. https://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/smoking Is it shows the gerund form of a verb smoke+ing? Best wishes.

Hello Nevi,

Yes, although the dictionary does not specify it, it is the gerund of the verb 'smoke'. If you compare other gerunds in the dictionary (e.g. 'swimming'), you'll see it also describes them as nouns. They are nouns when used this way.

All the best,

Kirk

The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by Hasan 97 on Mon, 29/03/2021 - 17:58

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Hello sir, I would like to know the difference between the sentences "He had gone there before he went" Or "He had gone there after he went" He went there before he had gone " As we know, past perfect comes before "before" and after "after" According to it, a question arises that Can we reverse the rule? Sir you are humbly requested to expound on it. Thanks in advance
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Submitted by Peter M. on Tue, 30/03/2021 - 08:39

In reply to by Hasan 97

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Hello Hasan 97,

The past perfect describes an event in the past before a later past time event, but it also shows a relationship between thost events in that one event (the earlier event) influences the other. Your sentences have no context and so it's not really possible to say what the relationship between the events might be, and if the past perfect would be appropriate, or if two past simple forms, showing a sequence in the past, would be better.

 

Peter

The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by Unpopular Opinion on Sun, 21/03/2021 - 16:20

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Hi there, Does it mean, it is correct to say " I had already discussed with my family" (since i've finished discussing it in the past)
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Submitted by Peter M. on Mon, 22/03/2021 - 06:58

In reply to by Unpopular Opinion

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Hello Unpopular Opinion,

Without any other context that is not a correct sentence. You need a second past time reference (stated in the sentence or implied by the context), which could be a time in the past or an action in the past.

 

You can read more about the past perfect here:

https://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/grammar/intermediate-to-upper-intermediate/past-perfect

 

Peter

The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by Plokonyo on Mon, 22/02/2021 - 11:36

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Sir, which one is correct? Next year I will live in London for five years. Next year I will have lived in London for five years.

Hello Plokonyo,

The second one is correct; the first one doesn't make sense.

All the best,

Kirk

The LearnEnglish Team

Thanks, Kirk. May I know why the first sentence is not correct?

Hello Plokonyo,

'Next year' speaks about a period of time of one year, but then the phrase 'for five years' speaks about a period of five years. These two time periods are inconsistent for the action 'I will live in'.

You could say something like 'Next year I will move to London for five years' instead, and that would make sense.

All the best,

Kirk

The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by Harry de ZHANG on Tue, 08/12/2020 - 06:28

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Hi LearnEnglish Team, About this usage of the present perfect, "when we are talking about our experience up to the present" Are there two sentences are correct? - Why my tooth still hurts? I have seen a dentist yesterday. - I don't want any more coffee. I have had it in the morning. My question is: when there's a time mark, like yesterday or this morning, which tense should we use, past tense or present perfect? One of my friends, who's a Brit, told me I should use present perfect under these two circumstances as the influence of the action is still effective in the present even though it happened in the past and there's a time mark in the sentence. Thank you.

Hello Harry de ZHANG,

When we have a time marker which indicates a finished past time period, such as yesterday, last week or 2017, we do not use the present perfect. The correct forms in your first example would be as follows:

Why does my tooth still hurt? I saw a dentist yesterday.

I don't want any more coffee. I had some in the morning.

 

Peter

The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by Samin on Sun, 06/12/2020 - 04:30

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Hello I want to know the correct answer: Are you ill? What will be the present perfect of this Have you been ill?/ Have you ill?
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Submitted by Kirk Moore on Sun, 06/12/2020 - 17:42

In reply to by Samin

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Hello Samin,

The correct form is 'Have you been ill?'.

All the best,

Kirk

The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by Samin on Tue, 06/10/2020 - 19:43

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Hello I'm bit confused here can an imperative sentence ends with question mark,like Should we not apologize to her for what we did? Can you help me, please?
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Submitted by Kirk Moore on Wed, 07/10/2020 - 06:44

In reply to by Samin

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Hello Samin,

While these sentences are suggesting that the listener do something, technically speaking, they are not imperative verb forms.

All the best,

Kirk

The LearnEnglish Team

Submitted by ER on Wed, 30/09/2020 - 13:03

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Hello I am confused about how to use stative verbs with Present Perfect Continuous tense. Please let me know if the following makes sense? 1st: Since how long have you had that flu? 2nd: Since how long have you been having that flu? 3rd: Since how long have you been treating that flu? 'Since how long' implies a time period that began in the past and continued till the present. This means that the correct sentence must use Present Perfect Continuous Tense. However, the 2nd sentence is incorrect because 'having' is a stative verb which cannot be used with a continuous form of tense. 3rd sentence is correct because 'treating' is a dynamic verb which can be used with Present Perfect Continuous Tense. 1st is also correct. Am I right?