Rob and Stephen talk about the third conditional, some medical vocabulary and ‘neither’ and ‘nor’.


Watch the video. Then go to the Tasks and do the activities.




Hello dear team,
Nice to meet you again.
In a film:
A: I don't like this food
B: Me neither

And in another situation :
A: Did you kiil her?
B: I kill no body.

My questions are:
1."me neither " formal or informal?
If it is informal, is it correct in grammar or not?
2.Are the differences from "I kill no body" and " I didn't kill any body?"
I kill no body, formal or not? Correctly or not? (Grammar)

Thank you very much for your answers.

Hello fahri,

'Me neither' is indeed correct. It's neutral in register, though perhaps slightly more informal than formal.

'I kill nobody' isn't really correct in standard English grammar -- 'I didn't kill anybody' is the correct version. It's also neutral.

All the best,
The LearnEnglish Team

Hello dear team,
Nice to meet you again.
You said: (in quick grammar) chapter "so"

To show negative agreement we use ‘neither’.

“I haven’t done the homework”. “Neither have I.”
“I don’t want another drink” “Neither do I.”
He doesn’t look very happy and neither does she.

Neither +v+s
Neither do I
Neither +s+v
Neither I do

1.Is it must like that ? (Invert s and v with negative)
2.What about "rarely , barely, never, nor, only" ?
Are they like "neither" or not?

Thank you very much

Hello fahri,

Yes, the inversion is necessary. As you're noticing, inversion is used (in a formal style or in a few fixed structures such as 'Neither do I') after adverbs or adverbial phrases which limit what is about to said or which are negative. You can see a little bit more on this in the Cambridge Dictionary grammar entry for inversion, and I'm sure you can find other explanations around the internet if you want to investigate this further. 

All the best,
The LearnEnglish Team

(From Cambridge dictionary)
They said:
Inversion can happen after here, and after there when it is as an adverb of place. After here and there, we can use a main verb without an auxiliary verb or modal verb:

Here comes the bus!

Here’s your coffee.

In many film that someone gives something to the other, he says:
"Here you are"
And from another situation he says:
"Here you go"

And from the popural song, he says:
Here I am, this is me
There's nowhere else on Earth.

My question is:
Here you are.
Here you go.
Here I am.
Without inversion. (Here+s+v)

We need some advice from you (the team ) if you don't mind.

Thank you very much team.

Hello fahri,

I think the rule here is that we do not invert after 'here' (or 'there') when the subject is a pronoun, but we do when the subject is a noun. For example:

Here it is but Here is the bus

Look, there's Paul but Look, there he is


Best wishes,


The LearnEnglish Team

And thank You for creating this wonderful English program! It's really useful for people who learn and improve their English level.
I have a question related to the medical vocabulary. Would You mind answering it, please?
The word "disease" or "desease" (synonym of illness) - which spelling is correct? I find different variantes in different dictionaries and can't understand...

Hello Aislin,

You're welcome and thanks for letting us know that you like it!

I've never seen the spelling 'desease' and have always used 'disease'. I'm not sure what dictionaries you've checked, but in any case, when you're not sure about spelling, I'd recommend checking the Cambridge or Oxford dictionaries for British English spelling and the Merriam-Webster for American English spelling.

All the best,
The LearnEnglish Team



thanks a million!
And I'll use your advice on dictionaries.

Best wishes,

Hello everyone. I would like to ask regarding the first exercise. Why do we say "we wouldn't have got lost. I think we need to use "have gotten lost" instead, since the form is past perfect.