The basic unit of English grammar is the clause:

[An unlucky student almost lost a 17th century violin worth almost £200,000]

[when he left it in the waiting room of a London station.]

[William Brown inherited the 1698 Stradivarius violin from his mother]

[and had just had it valued by a London dealer at £180,000.]

Clauses are made up of phrases:

[An unlucky student] + [almost lost] + [a 17th century violin worth almost £200,000]

[when] + [he] + [left] + [it] + [in the waiting room of a London station.]

[William Brown] + [inherited] + [the 1698 Stradivarius violin] + [from his mother]

[and] [had just had it valued] + [by a London dealer] + [at £180,000.]

We can join two or more clauses together to make sentences.

An unlucky student almost lost a 17th century violin worth almost £200,000 when he left it in the waiting room of a London station.

William Brown inherited the 1698 Stradivarius violin from his mother and had just had it valued by a London dealer at £180,000.


 

Comments

Hi there, I didn't understand why we used "be influenced" instead of "is influenced" , can you help me ?
Thanks.

Geopolitics suggest that a state's foreign policy "be influenced" by its desire to obtain, for example , sufficient agricultural land.

Hi GokaydinBariss,

'Be' is a present subjunctive.

Verbs such as 'suggest', 'insist' and 'demand' are often followed by a subjunctive form:

I demand that he go immediately.

I insist that he be fired.

Geopolitics suggest that it be influenced by...

 

Peter

The LearnEnglish Team

Hello sir,
Thank you.

Dear team hello, happy new year and best wishes,
(What is the answer to this question?) Can I use (for) instead of (to) after answer? If not why? Thank you.

Hi Hosseinpour

No, 'for' is not correct there. This is just the preposition that is used in this expression. 'for' and 'to' are not interchangeable, though there are some cases where both can be used.

All the best

Kirk

The LearnEnglish Team

Hello,
I would like to ask if the following sentences are correct:
Anyone who does not use Social media nowadays is behind times and needs to catch up
1. Is it a polite way to say something like this?
2.is it Social media or the Social media?
3.is it ok anyone or someone?

b. You must practice every day not once in a blue moon
1. Is it polite to use this idiom, in this case?
2. once in a blue moon or every blue moon?
Thank you in advance

Hello agie,

Your first question relates to articles. Please post it on one of our pages on that topic rather than using the 'clause, phrase and sentence' page for all of your questions.

We ask this for two reasons. First of all, it's helpful for other users who may have the same or a similar question and will be able to see your question and our answer when they are reading about the topic. Second, when you go to the relevant page you may find that the answer is already there, or that information there can help you to work out the answer.

 

Peter

The LearnEnglish Team

Hello to team.! It was long time i didnt sign in. I have a question this.

I will be late for school. I was been late for school ( correct)
I had been late for school. I have been late for ( how about it )

Thanks team so much. Best whishes.!

Hello tryon,

'I will be late for school' is fine.

'I was been late for school' is not correct. There is no such form as 'was been' in English.

'I had been late for school' is fine.

'I have been late for school' is OK, but needs some more information:

I have been late for school before / three times this week / many times / only one before.

 

Of course, these are only grammatical questions. Whether or not each example makes sense and is appropriate will depend on what you want to say and in which context you use it.

 

Peter

The LearnEnglish Team

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