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Hospital Scene 2 - Language Focus

Rob and Stephen talk about the third conditional, some medical vocabulary and ‘neither’ and ‘nor’.

Watch the video. Then go to the Tasks and do the activities.

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Nivel de idioma

Intermediate: B1

Comments

Dear Sir
Would you mind me expalining the what is the meaning of the act which both Ashlie and Stephen made with their fingers while Stephen was going to X-Ray?
Thank you.
Also could you check my quesiton above? Is it correct?
Thank you so much

Hi musashow17

Could you please tell us what the time code is? For example, at 2:27 in the video on this page, Stephen is pointing with his finger.

All the best

Kirk

The LearnEnglish Team

Hello dear team,
Nice to meet you again.
In a film:
A: I don't like this food
B: Me neither

And in another situation :
A: Did you kiil her?
B: I kill no body.

My questions are:
1."me neither " formal or informal?
If it is informal, is it correct in grammar or not?
2.Are the differences from "I kill no body" and " I didn't kill any body?"
I kill no body, formal or not? Correctly or not? (Grammar)

Thank you very much for your answers.

Hello fahri,

'Me neither' is indeed correct. It's neutral in register, though perhaps slightly more informal than formal.

'I kill nobody' isn't really correct in standard English grammar -- 'I didn't kill anybody' is the correct version. It's also neutral.

All the best,
Kirk
The LearnEnglish Team

Hello dear team,
Nice to meet you again.
You said: (in quick grammar) chapter "so"

To show negative agreement we use ‘neither’.

“I haven’t done the homework”. “Neither have I.”
“I don’t want another drink” “Neither do I.”
He doesn’t look very happy and neither does she.

Neither +v+s
Neither do I
Not
Neither +s+v
Neither I do

1.Is it must like that ? (Invert s and v with negative)
2.What about "rarely , barely, never, nor, only" ?
Are they like "neither" or not?

Thank you very much

Hello fahri,

Yes, the inversion is necessary. As you're noticing, inversion is used (in a formal style or in a few fixed structures such as 'Neither do I') after adverbs or adverbial phrases which limit what is about to said or which are negative. You can see a little bit more on this in the Cambridge Dictionary grammar entry for inversion, and I'm sure you can find other explanations around the internet if you want to investigate this further. 

All the best,
Kirk
The LearnEnglish Team

Hello!
And thank You for creating this wonderful English program! It's really useful for people who learn and improve their English level.
I have a question related to the medical vocabulary. Would You mind answering it, please?
The word "disease" or "desease" (synonym of illness) - which spelling is correct? I find different variantes in different dictionaries and can't understand...

Hello Aislin,

You're welcome and thanks for letting us know that you like it!

I've never seen the spelling 'desease' and have always used 'disease'. I'm not sure what dictionaries you've checked, but in any case, when you're not sure about spelling, I'd recommend checking the Cambridge or Oxford dictionaries for British English spelling and the Merriam-Webster for American English spelling.

All the best,
Kirk
The LearnEnglish Team

 

Hello everyone. I would like to ask regarding the first exercise. Why do we say "we wouldn't have got lost. I think we need to use "have gotten lost" instead, since the form is past perfect.

Hello Hnat Lesiv,

In British English, 'got' is usually used for both the past simple and the past participle forms. In other words, most speakers of American English use the three forms 'get, got, gotten' but most speakers of British English use 'get, got, got'.

All the best,
Kirk
The LearnEnglish Team

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